My friend is asking me for this advice, and I usually am good with advice, but thought I would pose the question to this scholarly group for opinion.
Buddy works for a company (X). X gets bought by company Y. Buddy is now a legacy-x employee now working at Y. All good so far. Buddy's employment paperwork is that which he signed when he signed on at X (not Y). Which includes the "X" version of their non-compete/non-solicit agreement.
As it happens, Company Y's non-compete/non-solicit is much stricter. But, many people that were former -X employees weren't asked to sign anything when they came over.
Now, Buddy got a promotion. They sent him a letter to sign and return. It's strangely assembled. Page 1 is a confirmation of your new salary, please sign this letter and return it. But Page 2 and Page 3 contains the Company Y non-compete/non-solicit agreement. I think they expected Buddy to sign and return 1/2/3, but page 1 (just the comp confirmation) says to return "that letter" and makes no mention of the further 2/3 pages.
Should he just sign the first one and ignore 2/3? That's what I advised. Why enter into something more restrictive than what he's governed by now, right? And can a company place such a request to sign something from here on out, like that? And what happens if you say no?
Anyways, I think I know the answer, but curious what kind of other people might say.
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